1. The Supreme Court held that access to menstrual hygiene facilities in schools flows directly from which Fundamental Right?
A. Article 14
B. Article 19
C. Article 21
D. Article 15
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Supreme Court interpreted Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty) to include the right to live with dignity. Menstrual hygiene facilities are essential to bodily autonomy, privacy, and dignity of girl students. Denial of such facilities forces girls to choose between education and self-respect, which violates the core spirit of Article 21.
2. The Court observed that lack of menstrual hygiene management (MHM) in schools primarily leads to:
A. Nutritional deficiencies
B. Drop in literacy rate
C. Stigma, absenteeism, and unsafe practices
D. Violation of reservation norms
Answer: C
Explanation:
The judgment highlighted that absence of proper MHM facilities results in social stigma, frequent school absenteeism, and unsafe menstrual practices among adolescent girls. This creates a gender-specific barrier to education and undermines both dignity and equality in schooling environments.
3. Which provision of the Right to Education Act was specifically linked with sanitation facilities?
A. Section 3
B. Section 8
C. Section 12
D. Section 19
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section 19 of the RTE Act mandates minimum infrastructural norms, including separate toilets for boys and girls and barrier-free access. The Court directed strict compliance by government schools and warned private schools of de-recognition for violations.
4. The Supreme Court emphasised educating male teachers and students on menstruation mainly to:
A. Improve health awareness
B. Reduce academic dropouts
C. Eliminate stigma and harassment
D. Promote gender budgeting
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Court recognised that menstrual stigma is socially constructed and reinforced by ignorance. Sensitising male teachers and students helps reduce harassment, invasive questioning, and shame, creating a more inclusive and respectful school environment for menstruating girls.
5. India became the first country to formally define “green steel” through:
A. National Green Hydrogen Mission
B. Carbon Credit Trading Scheme
C. Green Steel Taxonomy
D. Greening Steel Roadmap
Answer: C
Explanation:
India introduced the Green Steel Taxonomy (2024), becoming the first country to officially define what qualifies as green steel. This provides clarity for certification, policy formulation, and alignment with global climate commitments.
6. Nearly what percentage of India’s carbon emissions comes from the steel sector?
A. 6%
B. 8%
C. 10%
D. 12%
Answer: D
Explanation:
The steel sector contributes nearly 12% of India’s total carbon emissions, making it a key sector for India’s decarbonisation strategy. Transitioning to low-carbon steel is critical for meeting long-term climate targets.
7. The EU’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) mainly affects India by:
A. Reducing export quotas
B. Penalising high-carbon steel exports
C. Banning coal-based steel
D. Promoting hydrogen imports
Answer: B
Explanation:
The CBAM imposes border taxes on carbon-intensive imports like steel. For India, continued reliance on coal-based steel production could reduce export competitiveness in European markets.
8. Which factor is identified as a major bottleneck for green steel in India?
A. Lack of skilled labour
B. Limited green hydrogen availability
C. Poor foreign investment
D. Absence of steel demand
Answer: B
Explanation:
Green hydrogen is essential for low-carbon steelmaking, but it remains costly and scarce in India. Limited renewable energy capacity further constrains large-scale adoption of green steel technologies.
9. The Supreme Court stayed the UGC Promotion of Equity Rules (2026) mainly because they were:
A. Unconstitutional
B. Against reservation policy
C. Too broad and sweeping
D. Financially unviable
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Court found the rules too broad and sweeping, raising concerns about potential misuse. It called for careful revision to ensure balance between social justice and procedural fairness.
10. Which earlier UGC framework on equity was criticised for being ignored by institutions?
A. 2009 Framework
B. 2012 Framework
C. 2015 Framework
D. 2020 Framework
Answer: B
Explanation:
The 2012 UGC equity framework was meant to address discrimination in higher education but was largely ignored. Its failure highlighted the need for stronger enforcement mechanisms.
11. The tragic incident that intensified debate on campus discrimination was related to:
A. Najeeb Ahmed
B. Rohith Vemula
C. Payal Tadvi
D. Anitha Ponnusamy
Answer: B
Explanation:
The suicide of Rohith Vemula became a landmark case exposing caste-based discrimination in universities. It brought national attention to institutional failures in grievance redressal.
12. Mass killing of stray dogs in Telangana raised concerns mainly under which law?
A. Wildlife Protection Act
B. Environment Protection Act
C. Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act
D. Municipal Solid Waste Rules
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 mandates humane treatment of animals. Mass killing of stray dogs violates this law as well as judicial guidelines on animal welfare.
13. The legally approved method for stray dog population control is:
A. Relocation
B. Mass euthanasia
C. Sterilisation and anti-rabies vaccination
D. Community feeding bans
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Animal Birth Control (ABC) Rules emphasise sterilisation and vaccination as the humane and legal method for managing stray dog populations, not mass killings.
14. Gandhi’s concept of Gram Swaraj primarily emphasised:
A. Centralised planning
B. Industrial villages
C. Self-sufficient village republics
D. Urban-led growth
Answer: C
Explanation:
Gandhi envisioned villages as self-reliant republics capable of meeting basic needs while cooperating with others. Gram Swaraj promoted decentralisation, moral economy, and grassroots democracy.
15. Which Constitutional Amendment gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions?
A. 42nd
B. 44th
C. 73rd
D. 74th
Answer: C
Explanation:
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment (1992) provided constitutional recognition to Panchayati Raj Institutions, strengthening grassroots governance.
16. Only about what percentage of government expenditure flows directly through PRIs?
A. 10–12%
B. 7–8%
C. 4–5%
D. 15–20%
Answer: C
Explanation:
Despite constitutional backing, only 4–5% of government expenditure is routed through Panchayati Raj Institutions, highlighting weak fiscal decentralisation.
17. The NPS Swasthya Pension Scheme (NSPS) is launched by:
A. RBI
B. SEBI
C. Ministry of Health
D. PFRDA
Answer: D
Explanation:
The PFRDA launched NSPS as a pilot scheme under the regulatory sandbox to integrate pension savings with healthcare expenditure.
18. Under NSPS, non-government subscribers above 40 years can shift up to what percentage of NPS savings?
A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 30%
D. 40%
Answer: C
Explanation:
Subscribers above 40 years can transfer up to 30% of their NPS savings into the health-linked pension scheme to meet medical expenses.
19. The Pechora missile system is best described as:
A. Long-range ballistic missile
B. Medium-range surface-to-air missile
C. Anti-ship cruise missile
D. Intercontinental missile
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Pechora (S-125 Neva/Pechora) is a medium-range surface-to-air missile system designed to intercept low- to medium-altitude aerial threats.
20. Solar cycles are primarily tracked by observing:
A. Solar flares
B. Coronal mass ejections
C. Sunspots
D. Solar wind
Answer: C
Explanation:
Solar cycles follow an 11-year pattern, measured through the variation in sunspot numbers, which reflect changes in the Sun’s magnetic activity.