1. With reference to writ jurisdiction in India, consider the following statements:
Article 32 is itself a Fundamental Right.
High Courts can issue writs only for Fundamental Rights.
Writs are discretionary remedies.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Article 32 is a Fundamental Right allowing direct access to the Supreme Court. High Courts under Article 226 have wider jurisdiction and can issue writs for legal rights beyond Fundamental Rights. Writ jurisdiction is discretionary, and courts may refuse relief if alternative remedies exist.
2. Which writ is issued to question the legality of holding a public office?
(a) Mandamus
(b) Certiorari
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Prohibition
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Quo Warranto challenges the authority of a person holding a public office without legal justification. It ensures that public offices are not occupied unlawfully and strengthens constitutional governance.
3. Why did Kerala challenge the Enforcement Directorate’s writ petition?
(a) ED violated Article 32
(b) ED is not a juristic person
(c) ED acted beyond FEMA
(d) ED bypassed Parliament
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Kerala argued that the ED is merely a Union department and not a juristic entity capable of filing writs. The State also cited Article 131 and earlier Supreme Court rulings discouraging such petitions in High Courts.
4. Article 131 of the Constitution deals with:
(a) Advisory jurisdiction
(b) Fundamental Rights enforcement
(c) Centre–State disputes
(d) Original criminal jurisdiction
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Article 131 gives the Supreme Court exclusive original jurisdiction over disputes between the Centre and States. Kerala argued that ED–State disputes should be resolved under this provision.
5. If the Supreme Court upholds ED’s writ jurisdiction, ED may be treated similar to:
(a) CBI
(b) NITI Aayog
(c) SEBI
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
SEBI and RBI are statutory bodies with independent legal personality. Treating ED similarly would expand its autonomy and ability to litigate independently, raising federal concerns.
6. The India–EU FTA is significant mainly because:
(a) EU is India’s largest trading partner
(b) EU accounts for about 12% of India’s trade
(c) It includes defence alliance
(d) It replaces WTO rules
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The EU contributes nearly 12% of India’s trade, making this FTA more impactful than recent agreements with smaller economies. It significantly reshapes India’s export landscape.
7. Under the India–EU FTA, the EU will remove tariffs on approximately:
(a) 85% of Indian exports
(b) 90% of Indian exports
(c) 95% of Indian exports
(d) 99.5% of Indian exports
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The EU agreed to remove tariffs on 99.5% of Indian exports, most immediately, boosting sectors like textiles, pharmaceuticals, and gems & jewellery.
8. Which sector was deliberately protected by India in the FTA negotiations?
(a) IT services
(b) Dairy and agriculture
(c) Pharmaceuticals
(d) Electronics
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
India excluded sensitive agricultural and dairy sectors from tariff concessions to protect farmers and food security, reflecting a cautious and balanced trade strategy.
9. What is the major unresolved concern for India under the FTA?
(a) Labour standards
(b) Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM)
(c) Intellectual property rights
(d) Services mobility
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
India could not secure exemptions under the EU’s CBAM, which imposes carbon-linked tariffs. This may affect Indian exports as CBAM expands to more products.
10. An FTA primarily aims to:
(a) Replace domestic industries
(b) Increase tariff revenue
(c) Remove trade barriers
(d) Promote import substitution
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
FTAs reduce or eliminate tariffs, quotas, and restrictions to facilitate smoother trade flows, investment, and competitiveness among partner countries.
11. Which factor has most strengthened independent voting in India?
(a) Compulsory voting
(b) Political campaigns
(c) Secret ballot and EVMs
(d) Social media
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The introduction of secret ballots, EVMs, and VVPAT has enhanced voter privacy and autonomy, encouraging independent decision-making across demographics.
12. According to survey data, voter turnout in India has:
(a) Declined sharply
(b) Become unstable
(c) Remained broadly stable
(d) Increased only in urban areas
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Recent data shows continuity in voter turnout with gradual social changes, reflecting democratic resilience rather than volatility.
13. Which group shows rising political participation due to targeted reforms?
(a) Senior citizens
(b) Women
(c) Migrant workers
(d) Armed forces
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Awareness campaigns, women-managed polling booths, and better access have increased women’s electoral participation and political engagement.
14. Voter turnout is calculated by:
(a) Votes polled ÷ population
(b) Votes polled ÷ registered voters
(c) Valid votes ÷ electorate
(d) Total voters ÷ census population
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Voter turnout equals total votes cast divided by total eligible (registered) voters, multiplied by 100.
15. India’s tourism deficit mainly reflects:
(a) Lack of monuments
(b) Weak branding and infrastructure
(c) Visa restrictions only
(d) High hotel capacity
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Despite cultural richness, India suffers from image issues, infrastructure gaps, safety concerns, and poor tourist experience compared to smaller nations like Singapore.
16. Which strategy is recommended to improve India’s tourism appeal?
(a) Uniform national branding
(b) Segment-based branding
(c) Restrict foreign tourists
(d) Increase airport taxes
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Segmented branding such as spiritual, adventure, luxury, and circuit-based tourism helps target diverse tourist preferences and improve global perception.
17. India’s battery cell production under PLI has achieved approximately:
(a) 25% of target
(b) 15% of target
(c) 10% of target
(d) 2.8% of target
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Against a target of 50 GWh, only 1.4 GWh has been commissioned, highlighting major gaps in advanced manufacturing capabilities.
18. The main weakness of India’s PLI design is:
(a) Excessive subsidies
(b) Capital-centric approach
(c) Lack of private players
(d) WTO violations
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
PLI schemes focus heavily on financial incentives while underestimating the importance of skills, R&D, technology transfer, and ecosystem development.
19. Polar vortex expansion primarily causes:
(a) Heatwaves
(b) Cyclones
(c) Arctic cold outbreaks
(d) El Niño
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Expansion of the polar vortex weakens jet streams, allowing cold Arctic air to move southward, causing extreme winter events.
20. The Doomsday Clock being set at 85 seconds to midnight indicates:
(a) Exact prediction of nuclear war
(b) Symbolic global risk warning
(c) Scientific certainty of disaster
(d) UN security alert
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Doomsday Clock is a symbolic tool highlighting humanity’s proximity to catastrophe based on nuclear threats, climate change, and emerging technologies.