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UPSC CSE 2026 Prelims GS Paper Answer Key

UPSC CSE 2026 Prelims GS Paper Answer Key

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UPSC PRELIMS 2026 · GS PAPER

UPSC CSE 2026 Prelims — GS Paper Answer Key

Complete answer key with detailed explanations for all 100 questions, organized section-wise for quick review.

PRELIMS — GS PAPER 1

Complete Answer Key + Detailed Explanations

ALL 100 QUESTIONS

(Test Booklet Series D · Conducted: 24 May 2026)

Includes:

  • ★ Detailed explanation for every question (300–400 words)
  • ★ Why each incorrect option is wrong
  • ★ Subject-wise analysis and quick reference table
  • ★ Difficulty analysis and trend observations
  • ★ Source-verified with UPSC, UNESCO, RBI, Nobel Prize 2025

TABLE OF CONTENTS

Section A: Questions 1 to 25 — History, Art & Culture, Geography

Section B: Questions 26 to 50 — Environment, Geography, IR, Awards, Films

Section C: Questions 51 to 75 — Economy, Finance, Science & Tech, Polity

Section D: Questions 76 to 100 — Ethics, Polity, IR, Defence, Misc

Section E: Subject-Wise Analysis + Quick Answer Key Table

Total: 100 questions with detailed explanations

Download Answer Key

Complete PDF · 100 questions with detailed explanations

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Also Check:

UPSC Prelims Exam Analysis 2026

E. Subject-Wise Analysis and Quick Answer Key

This section provides a consolidated subject-wise distribution of the 100 questions and a quick-reference answer key table for rapid verification.

Subject-Wise Distribution

Subject Question Numbers Total % Weight
History & Art/Culture 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 27 19 19%
Geography 3, 21, 23, 24, 29, 35, 36 7 7%
Environment & Ecology 22, 26, 28, 30, 31, 32, 33, 37, 70, 72 10 10%
Economy & Finance 12, 25, 38, 39, 51-65 19 19%
Polity & Governance 79-84, 87, 88, 99 9 9%
Science & Technology 44, 45, 49, 66-69, 71, 73-75, 85, 90, 93 14 14%
International Relations 34, 40, 43, 46, 89, 91, 92, 94-97, 100 12 12%
Ethics / Case Studies 76, 77, 78 3 3%
Misc. Sports/Films/Awards 41, 42, 47, 48, 50, 86, 98 7 7%
TOTAL 100 100%
History & Art/Culture
19%
Q. 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 27
Total Questions: 19
Geography
7%
Q. 3, 21, 23, 24, 29, 35, 36
Total Questions: 7
Environment & Ecology
10%
Q. 22, 26, 28, 30, 31, 32, 33, 37, 70, 72
Total Questions: 10
Economy & Finance
19%
Q. 12, 25, 38, 39, 51-65
Total Questions: 19
Polity & Governance
9%
Q. 79-84, 87, 88, 99
Total Questions: 9
Science & Technology
14%
Q. 44, 45, 49, 66-69, 71, 73-75, 85, 90, 93
Total Questions: 14
International Relations
12%
Q. 34, 40, 43, 46, 89, 91, 92, 94-97, 100
Total Questions: 12
Ethics / Case Studies
3%
Q. 76, 77, 78
Total Questions: 3
Misc. Sports/Films/Awards
7%
Q. 41, 42, 47, 48, 50, 86, 98
Total Questions: 7
TOTAL
100%
Total Questions: 100
Q1
Consider the following assertion: In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa. Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion? 1. The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda. 2. The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote. 3. The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems.
A1 only
B2 only
C1 and 2
D3
EXPLANATION

Robert Bruce Foote, the Father of Indian Prehistory, conducted extensive geological and archaeological explorations of the Yamuna and Sutlej basins. His paleo-hydrological studies provided direct geological evidence of ancient river-course shifts in the Pleistocene era.

Why others are wrong: The Nadi-Sukta only lists rivers but does not describe Pleistocene river shifts. Indus and Ganga river dolphins are now treated as separate species, so this is not the basis of the assertion.

Q2
What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography?
AThe meditation of the Buddha
BThe Buddha's First Sermon
CThe Buddha's Mahaparinibbana
DThe Buddha's Mahabhinishkramana
EXPLANATION

In early Buddhist aniconic art, the Buddha was represented through symbols rather than human form. Empty seat or Vajrasana represents Mahaparinibbana, the Buddha's final liberation.

Why others are wrong: Meditation is associated with the Bodhi tree. First sermon is represented by Dharmachakra. Mahabhinishkramana is represented by the riderless horse.

Q3
Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched? 1. Vitasta : Chenab; 2. Asikni : Jhelum; 3. Parushni : Ravi; 4. Yavyavati : Beas
A1 and 2
B3 and 4
C3 only
D4 only
EXPLANATION

Correct river matches are: Vitasta = Jhelum, Asikni = Chenab, Parushni = Ravi, Vipas = Beas, Shatadri/Sutudri = Sutlej. Therefore only Parushni = Ravi is correct.

Why others are wrong: Vitasta and Asikni are swapped in the question. Yavyavati is not Beas.

Q4
Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct? 1. It was located in the lower Krishna valley. 2. In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size. 3. The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia.
A1 only
B1 and 3 only
C2 and 3 only
D1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION

Amaravati Stupa was located in the lower Krishna valley in present Andhra Pradesh. Amaravati art influenced later South Indian, Sri Lankan and South-east Asian Buddhist art.

Why others are wrong: Amaravati was larger than Sanchi, so statement 2 is incorrect.

Q5
Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched? 1. Senguttuvan : Chera; 2. Udiyanjeral : Chola; 3. Nedunjeliyan : Pandya
A1 and 2
B2 only
C1 and 3
D3 only
EXPLANATION

Senguttuvan was a Chera king and Nedunjeliyan was a Pandya king. Udiyanjeral was also a Chera king, not Chola.

Why others are wrong: Only pair 2 is incorrectly matched.

Q6
Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939? 1. Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi. 2. The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose. 3. The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours. 4. The supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose.
A1, 2 and 3
B1, 2 and 4
C1, 3 and 4
D2 and 4 only
EXPLANATION

After the Tripuri crisis of 1939, Bose was isolated within Congress. Gandhi and the Working Committee did not cooperate. Congress Left groups also failed to support him fully, while socialist leaders preferred Congress unity.

Why others are wrong: Communists initially supported Bose’s anti-imperialist line, so statement 3 is incorrect.

Q7
Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856: 1. The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts. 2. A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the taluqdars were outsiders. 3. The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the taluqdars.
A2 and 3 only
B1 and 3 only
C1, 2 and 3
D2 only
EXPLANATION

After annexation of Awadh, the British introduced Summary Revenue Settlement and treated taluqdars as intermediaries. They wanted direct settlement with peasants.

Why others are wrong: Taluqdars were dispossessed and also disarmed. Their forts were demolished and arms were seized.

Q8
Consider the following assertion: The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919. Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion? 1. Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates. 2. Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger. 3. Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates.
A1 only
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 2 only
D1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION

The Government of India Act, 1919 retained and extended separate electorates. This encouraged community-based politics and helped the colonial state divide nationalist opinion.

Why others are wrong: All three statements correctly support the assertion.

Q9
Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the:
AAgra Gharana
BGwalior Gharana
CPatiala Gharana
DJaipur-Atrauli Gharana
EXPLANATION

Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur was a renowned Hindustani classical vocalist from Karnataka and a leading exponent of the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana.

Why others are wrong: Agra, Gwalior and Patiala are different gharanas with other leading exponents.

Q10
In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni ('mistress of the field') originate?
ARigveda
BAtharvaveda
CAshtadhyayi
DArthashastra
EXPLANATION

The term kshetra-patni is associated with Panini’s Ashtadhyayi. It literally means mistress of the field and is discussed in the context of grammatical and social usage.

Why others are wrong: The term is not traced to Rigveda, Atharvaveda or Arthashastra in this technical sense.

Q11
Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music?
ANat Bhairavi
BKamavardhini
CHanumatodi
DDheera Shankarabharanam
EXPLANATION

Dheera Shankarabharanam in Carnatic music corresponds to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music. Both are based on the natural major scale.

Why others are wrong: Nat Bhairavi, Kamavardhini and Hanumatodi correspond to different melodic frameworks.

Q12
The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons?
AAiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India's creditworthiness
BProviding support to Indian importers
CEncouraging export of cotton produce from India
DPreventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold
EXPLANATION

The Hilton-Young Commission recommended fixing the rupee-sterling exchange rate at a level that helped British interests by aiding remittances and maintaining India’s sterling creditworthiness.

Why others are wrong: A high rupee hurt Indian exports and was not designed mainly to support Indian importers or cotton exporters.

Q13
Consider the following statements: I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika. II. The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver. The above statements have been associated with which of the following? 1. Emergence of urban life; 2. Transition to money economy
A1 only
B2 only
CBoth 1 and 2
DNeither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION

Pali texts and punch-marked coins are linked with the second urbanisation and the growth of money economy in early historic India.

Why others are wrong: Both urban growth and monetisation are valid inferences.

Q14
Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara? 1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami; 2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole; 3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh; 4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal
A1 and 2
B2 and 3
C3 only
D3 and 4
EXPLANATION

The Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh is an early example of Nagara-style shikhara. The other listed temples belong to Chalukyan Dravida/transitional forms.

Why others are wrong: Malegitti Shivalaya, Huchimalligudi and Virupaksha are not standard Nagara shikhara examples.

Q15
Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included?
ADeva (gods)
BYaksha (demi-gods)
CManushya (humans)
DTiryancha (animals and plants)
EXPLANATION

Jainism recognises four gatis: Deva, Manushya, Tiryancha and Naraki. Yaksha is not a separate main form of existence.

Why others are wrong: Deva, Manushya and Tiryancha are among the recognised gatis.

Q16
The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents:
AA joyous folk dance
BBuddha in a meditative pose
CThe depiction of Shiva and Parvati on Kailasha
DSamudramanthan (Churning of the Ocean)
EXPLANATION

The Hallisalasya painting in Bagh Caves represents a joyous folk dance scene.

Why others are wrong: The other options refer to different religious or mythological depictions.

Q17
Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India: 1. The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595-596). 2. In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India. 3. The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A1 and 2 only
B1 and 3 only
C2 and 3 only
D1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION

The Mankani plates are associated with early epigraphic evidence of place-value notation. Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia also show early use of Indian numerals.

Why others are wrong: The system did not become general all over India in the ninth century.

Q18
Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns: I. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels. II. Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered. III. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements? 1. Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home. 2. Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed. 3. Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system.
A1 and 2 only
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 3 only
D1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION

Spindle-whorls suggest domestic spinning. Graduated weights and scales show scientific and mathematical knowledge among Harappans.

Why others are wrong: Private wells, bathing platforms and large houses indicate private ownership and social differentiation, not common property.

Q19
Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct?
AThe Eka Movement was throughout supported and organized by the Congress while Bardoli Satyagraha was initially independent of Congress influence and was only in the last stages supported by the Congress.
BThe Eka Movement was provided leadership by the taluqdars of Awadh, whereas the Bardoli Satyagraha was a movement of the landless labourers.
CThe Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents.
DThe Eka Movement was located in the Varanasi and Mirzapur districts of the present-day U.P., while the Bardoli Satyagraha took place in Saurashtra.
EXPLANATION

Bardoli Satyagraha opposed land revenue enhancement in Gujarat. Eka Movement was a peasant protest in Awadh against high rents and landlord oppression.

Why others are wrong: Eka was not throughout organised by Congress, not led by taluqdars, and was not located in Varanasi-Mirzapur.

Q20
Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period: I. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface. II. Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells. Which of the following information support/supports the above statements? 1. There is evidence in the Rigveda of the use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water. 2. Mention has been made in the Rigveda of the use of implements like parashu/kulisha (axe) and datra/sreni (sickle). 3. There is a history of the use of ox, even before the Rigveda, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts.
A1 and 2 only
B1, 2 and 3
C1 and 3 only
D3 only
EXPLANATION

All three references support the idea of well irrigation, agricultural implements and draught-animal use in the Rigvedic context.

Why others are wrong: No statement should be excluded.

Q21
Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries?
AEcuador
BPeru
CBolivia
DColombia
EXPLANATION

Tungurahua Volcano is located in Ecuador in the Andes region.

Why others are wrong: Peru, Bolivia and Colombia are Andean countries, but Tungurahua is specifically in Ecuador.

Q22
With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025. 2. Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park. 3. Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.
A1 only
B1 and 2
C2 and 3
D3 only
EXPLANATION

Madhav National Park is in Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh and was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2025. Sakhya Sagar, a Ramsar site, lies within the park.

Why others are wrong: The park is not shared with Rajasthan.

Q23
With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate. 2. It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon. 3. Maximum precipitation is between December and May.
A1 only
B1 and 2
C2 and 3
D3 only
EXPLANATION

Andaman and Nicobar Islands have humid tropical coastal climate and receive rainfall from both South-west and North-east monsoons.

Why others are wrong: Maximum precipitation is broadly during the monsoon months, not December to May.

Q24
Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India? 1. Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity. 2. Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills. 3. Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers.
A1 only
B1 and 2
C2 and 3
D3 only
EXPLANATION

The Peninsular Block shows evidence of western coastal submergence and residual hills such as Veliconda and Mahendragiri.

Why others are wrong: Deep V-shaped valleys are more typical of youthful Himalayan rivers, not mature peninsular rivers.

Q25
Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India: I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure. II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings. III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions. Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct? 1. Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I. 2. Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework. 3. Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.
A1 only
B1 and 2
C2 and 3
D3 only
EXPLANATION

Sagarmala is based on port-led development. Growth in coastal shipping and better port ranking validates its approach. Sagarmala 2.0 extends the earlier framework towards innovation and future maritime capacity.

Why others are wrong: Statement I does not contradict Statement III. They are complementary.

Q26
Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid): 1. It is an epiphytic orchid. 2. The species is endemic to North-east India. 3. It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.
A1 only
B1 and 3
C2 and 3
D3 only
EXPLANATION

Rhynchostylis retusa is an epiphytic orchid and is the state flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.

Why others are wrong: It is not endemic only to North-east India; it is found in many parts of South and Southeast Asia.

Q27
Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct? 1. They acted as army fortresses. 2. They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles. 3. They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles. 4. They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles.
A1 only
B1 and 3
C3 only
D2 and 4
EXPLANATION

Moidams are royal burial mounds of the Ahom dynasty, especially at Charaideo in Assam.

Why others are wrong: They were not army forts, recreation centres or battle drill centres.

Q28
At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and 'Blue Transformation'. Which of the following combinations about the 'Four Betters' proposed by FAO for 'Blue Transformation' is correct?
ABetter production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean
BBetter production, better nutrition, better environment and better life
CBetter coral reefs, better nutrition, better environment and better life
DBetter estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation
EXPLANATION

FAO’s Four Betters are Better Production, Better Nutrition, Better Environment and Better Life.

Why others are wrong: The other options replace one or more official components with incorrect terms.

Q29
Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct? 1. It is the largest desert lake in the world. 2. The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert. 3. The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the 'Jade Sea'.
A1 only
B1 and 3 only
C2 and 3 only
D1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION

Lake Turkana is the world’s largest desert lake and is called the Jade Sea. Lake Turkana National Parks are UNESCO World Heritage Sites.

Why others are wrong: It is located mainly in Kenya, with a small part in Ethiopia, not South Sudan.

Q30
Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India?
AUttarakhand REDD+ project
BICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas
CKhasi Hills Community REDD+ project
DSikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project
EXPLANATION

The Khasi Hills Community REDD+ Project in Meghalaya is India’s first Plan Vivo certified REDD+ project.

Why others are wrong: The other projects are either pilot/research projects or later initiatives.

Q31
Consider the following statements with reference to India's response to climate change: I. India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. II. India's 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019. III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets. Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct? 1. Statement I is empirically supported by statement II. 2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I. 3. Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability.
A1 only
B1 and 2
C2 and 3
D3 only
EXPLANATION

India’s LT-LEDS provides a long-term pathway to net-zero emissions by 2070. The emission decrease reported in BUR-4 supports India’s progress, while statement III contradicts the long-term transition approach.

Why others are wrong: Statement III cannot combine with statement I to establish long-term sustainability because it stresses quick short-term targets, unlike India’s long-term climate strategy.

Q32
With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List. 2. They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees. 3. They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers.
A1 only
B1 and 2
C2 and 3
D3 only
EXPLANATION

Western Hoolock Gibbons are India’s only ape species and are found in North-east India, including Hoollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary in Assam. They are known for brachiation, or arm-swinging movement.

Why others are wrong: Gibbons are small, light-bodied apes, not heavy-built like gorillas.

Q33
Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience? 1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts. 2. Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones. 3. By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities.
A1 only
B1 and 2
C2 and 3
D3 only
EXPLANATION

Mangroves act as natural bio-shields against tidal surges, cyclones and coastal erosion. They also support fisheries, honey collection, fuelwood and other livelihood resources.

Why others are wrong: Mangrove areas are saline and not ideal for paddy cultivation. Mangroves are salt-tolerant, not salt-sensitive, and do not convert coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.

Q34
In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India's maritime trade and logistics policy? 1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations. 2. By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala's profile as a maritime heritage destination. 3. By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade.
A1 only
B1 and 2
C2 and 3
D3 only
EXPLANATION

Vizhinjam is India’s deep-water international trans-shipment port. Its natural deep draft and proximity to major shipping lanes can reduce India’s dependence on Colombo, Singapore and other foreign trans-shipment hubs.

Why others are wrong: It is not exclusively domestic and not primarily a cruise tourism or heritage port project.

Q35
Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information: 1. It has an antecedent drainage system. 2. It flows through three countries. 3. It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation. 4. It does not form distributaries.
ABrahmaputra
BIndus
CSutlej
DTeesta
EXPLANATION

Sutlej originates near the Tibetan Plateau, flows through China, India and Pakistan, is antecedent in character and is important for irrigation through projects like Bhakra-Nangal.

Why others are wrong: Brahmaputra and Indus form distributary/delta systems, while Teesta does not satisfy all given clues.

Q36
Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct? 1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States. 2. Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States. 3. Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State.
A1 only
B1 and 2
C2 and 3
D3 only
EXPLANATION

Uttar Pradesh borders the highest number of Indian states. Rajasthan has the longest international border among Indian states. Sikkim borders only West Bengal within India, but it is not the only such state.

Why others are wrong: Meghalaya also shares its boundary with only one Indian state, Assam. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Q37
Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct? 1. It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds. 2. It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites. 3. It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes.
A1 only
B1 and 2
C2 and 3
D3 only
EXPLANATION

Amur Falcons migrate from East Asia to Southern Africa, using Nagaland as a major stopover. Local conservation efforts around Doyang Lake helped protect them.

Why others are wrong: Tracking technology helps scientists, not the birds. Amur Falcons are migratory visitors, not permanent residents of India.

Q38
With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct?
A1 only
B1 and 2
C2 and 3
D3 only
EXPLANATION

This is treated as a repeated/duplicate Western Hoolock Gibbon question. Correct reasoning remains the same: the species is found in North-east India and is known for brachiation.

Why others are wrong: The heavy gorilla-like build statement is incorrect for gibbons.

Q39
The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January, 2026. Which of the following is/are not correct in terms of outcomes of this visit? 1. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg. 2. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation. 3. Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific. 4. Opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Lucknow.
A2 and 3
B1 and 4
C3 and 4
D1 only
EXPLANATION

Statements 1 and 2 are treated as correct outcomes. The Indo-Pacific dialogue mechanism was not newly established during this visit, and Lucknow was not the announced location for an Honorary Consul.

Why others are wrong: The question asks for not correct outcomes, making 3 and 4 the correct choice.

Q40
Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct? 1. It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India. 2. It is India's first homegrown 1·0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor.
A1 only
B2 only
CBoth 1 and 2
DNeither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION

DHRUV64 is associated with India’s indigenous microprocessor development under the DIR-V programme.

Why others are wrong: The specific description in statement 2 as a 1.0 GHz 64-bit dual-core microprocessor is treated as inaccurate.

Q41
The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct? 1. The new standard is known as IS 19445 : 2025. 2. It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies. 3. It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia.
A1, 2 and 3
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 2 only
D1 only
EXPLANATION

IS 19445:2025 is the Indian standard for testing and assessing bomb disposal systems. It aims to improve interoperability across agencies.

Why others are wrong: The claim of development in collaboration with a Russian institute is incorrect.

Q42
'X', born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify 'X':
AMichel H. Devoret
BRichard Robson
CJohn Clarke
DJoel Mokyr
EXPLANATION

John Clarke was born in the UK and is associated with an American university. He fits the given profile.

Why others are wrong: The other personalities do not match both the birthplace and institutional profile given in the question.

Q43
Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct? 1. The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments. 2. They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14. 3. There is a limitation on the number of 'Wild Cards' a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament.
A1 and 2 only
B2 and 3 only
C1 only
D1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION

The four Grand Slam tournaments coordinate through shared governance mechanisms such as the Grand Slam Board.

Why others are wrong: There is no simple age-above-14 entry rule for all internationally ranked players, and wild cards are given by tournament discretion rather than a fixed career limit.

Q44
Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched? (a) CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics : Gujarat; (b) Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. : Assam; (c) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. : Madhya Pradesh; (d) SicSem Pvt. Ltd. : Odisha
A(a) CG Power : Gujarat
B(b) Tata SAT : Assam
C(c) HCL-Foxconn : Madhya Pradesh
D(d) SicSem : Odisha
EXPLANATION

CG Power project is associated with Gujarat, Tata SAT with Assam, and SicSem with Odisha. The HCL-Foxconn location given as Madhya Pradesh is incorrect.

Why others are wrong: The incorrect pair is HCL-Foxconn : Madhya Pradesh.

Q45
Which of the following statements with regard to India's indigenous new high resolution weather model, the 'Bharat Forecast System', is/are correct? 1. Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level. 2. It was developed by IIT Delhi.
A1 only
B2 only
CBoth 1 and 2
DNeither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION

Bharat Forecast System aims to provide high-resolution forecasts useful at local levels including Panchayat clusters.

Why others are wrong: It was developed by IITM Pune under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, not IIT Delhi.

Q46
Consider the following statements with regard to the film 'Boong': 1. The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children's and Family Film category. 2. The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi. 3. This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children's and Family Film category.
A1, 2 and 3
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 2 only
D3 only
EXPLANATION

Boong is associated with Lakshmipriya Devi and is treated as a historic Indian win in the Children’s and Family Film category.

Why others are wrong: All three statements are correct.

Q47
Match List I (INTERPOL Notice) with List II (Description): A. Silver Notice — 1. To seek information on unidentified bodies; B. Blue Notice — 2. To collect additional information about a person's identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation; C. Black Notice — 3. To provide warning about a person's criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety; D. Green Notice — 4. To identify and trace criminal assets
AA-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
BA-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
CA-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
DA-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
EXPLANATION

Silver Notice is for identifying/tracing criminal assets. Blue Notice collects additional information about a person. Black Notice relates to unidentified bodies. Green Notice warns about criminal activities and threats to public safety.

Why others are wrong: Other options mismatch the notice colours and their official purposes.

Q48
Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct? 1. Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata. 2. Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi. 3. Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal.
A1, 2 and 3
B1 and 3 only
C2 only
D3 only
EXPLANATION

The Capacity Development Support vertical is associated with the Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal.

Why others are wrong: Botanical Survey of India and Central Zoo Authority are not the correct lead institutes for the first two verticals as framed in the question.

Q49
'X' was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term 'law' as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. 'X' explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. 'Y' pointed out that the term 'law' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having the force of law, to which 'X' was not convinced. Based on the above, select the correct conclusion:
A'X' is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.
BThe view of 'Y' that 'law' included custom is not correct.
CThe views of both 'X' and 'Y' are correct.
DThe view of only 'Y' is correct.
EXPLANATION

Article 13(3)(a) defines law to include ordinances, orders, bye-laws, rules, regulations, notifications, customs and usages having the force of law.

Why others are wrong: X is incomplete because he excludes custom. Y is correct because custom or usage having force of law is included under Article 13.

Q50
Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India: 1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'. 2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed. 3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
AAll three statements are correct.
BThere is no correct statement.
CThere are two correct statements that include statement 3.
DThere is only one correct statement.
EXPLANATION

Article 393 names the Constitution as the Constitution of India. Article 395 repeals the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and Government of India Act, 1935. Hence statements 1 and 2 are wrong.

Why others are wrong: Only one statement is treated as correct in the conclusion-based framing.

Q51
Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct? 1. Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration. 2. Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network, syncing within seconds. 3. Consortium blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access. 4. Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted.
A1 and 3
B2 and 4 only
C1, 2 and 4
D1 and 4 only
EXPLANATION

Blockchain provides transparency to relevant stakeholders, distributed copies across nodes, and immutability through cryptographic algorithms.

Why others are wrong: The consortium blockchain statement is framed imprecisely and is not treated as a core correct feature in this question.

Q52
An e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn't keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orders and shipment details to a third-party supplier, who then ships the goods directly to the customer, is called:
ADropshipping Model
BAffiliate Revenue Model
CTransaction Fee Revenue Model
DAgency Revenue Model
EXPLANATION

Dropshipping is an e-commerce model where the seller does not keep inventory and forwards customer orders to a third-party supplier, who directly ships the goods.

Why others are wrong: Affiliate, transaction fee and agency revenue models operate differently and do not match the given description.

Q53
Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
ACredit access, Insurance depth, and Pension coverage
BBanking access, GDP contribution, and Financial literacy
CAccess, Usage, and Quality
DAccess, Affordability, and Transparency
EXPLANATION

RBI’s Financial Inclusion Index is based on three broad sub-indices: Access, Usage and Quality.

Why others are wrong: Other combinations are not the official RBI FI-Index sub-indices.

Q54
Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India's 'Open Network for Digital Commerce' (ONDC) initiative?
ATo allow government control over all digital commerce transactions
BTo replace private e-commerce players
CTo break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks
DTo mandate UPI-based payments for all online transactions
EXPLANATION

ONDC seeks to democratise digital commerce by enabling interoperability between buyer-side and seller-side platforms, reducing platform dominance.

Why others are wrong: ONDC is not about government control, replacing private players, or mandating UPI payments.

Q55
Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correct?
AUPI is a real-time payment system but Digital Rupee is akin to sovereign paper currency.
BIn case of UPI, settlement for end users happens instantly as the money gets immediately debited or credited but in case of Digital Rupee, there is no settlement as the wallet balance gets transferred to another wallet.
CUPI transactions are recorded by banks and reflected in bank statements but in case of Digital Rupee, no data is captured in bank statements as transactions are from one wallet to another.
DIn both the cases (UPI and Digital Rupee), the liability lies with the users and their respective banks.
EXPLANATION

UPI is a bank-account based real-time payment system. Digital Rupee is central bank money and is the liability of the RBI, like physical currency.

Why others are wrong: Statement D is incorrect because Digital Rupee liability lies with the RBI, not with users or commercial banks.

Q56
Which of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenization are correct? 1. Tokenization is the process of turning real world assets into digital tokens using blockchain technology. 2. Tokenization of real world assets offers 24×7 access, promoting financial inclusion. 3. Tokenization of real world assets will allow the access to high growth investment opportunities for individuals in India.
A1, 2 and 3
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 2 only
D1 and 3 only
EXPLANATION

RWA tokenization converts assets such as real estate, gold, art or bonds into blockchain-based digital tokens. It can improve access, liquidity and fractional ownership.

Why others are wrong: All three statements correctly describe RWA tokenization.

Q57
A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called:
AGreen Bond
BSocial Bond
CSustainability Bond
DSovereign Bond
EXPLANATION

Sustainability bonds finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects.

Why others are wrong: Green bonds are environment-focused, social bonds are social-project focused, and sovereign bond only indicates government borrowing.

Q58
Which of the following statements about M1xchange's role in Micro, Small , Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) financing is/are correct? 1. M1xchange provides collateral based loans to MSMEs. 2. M1xchange facilitates discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange for MSMEs. 3. M1xchange functions as a credit rating agency for MSMEs.
A1, 2 and 3
B2 only
C2 and 3 only
D1 only
EXPLANATION

M1xchange is a TReDS platform that facilitates invoice and bill discounting for MSMEs, helping them obtain working capital against receivables.

Why others are wrong: It does not provide collateral-based loans directly and is not a credit rating agency.

Q59
Which one of the following best describes the 'Crowding Out Effect' in the context of fiscal policy?
AA situation where private investment increases due to increased Government spending
BA situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment
CA situation where an increase in taxes leads to increased private sector investment
DA situation where Government spending has no impact on aggregate demand
EXPLANATION

Crowding out occurs when heavy government borrowing raises interest rates and makes borrowing costlier for private investors, thereby reducing private investment.

Why others are wrong: Option A describes crowding in. Options C and D do not define crowding out.

Q60
Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct? 1. Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise Rare Earth Elements (REEs). 2. China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India. 3. The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector. 4. Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements.
A1 and 3 only
B3 only
C1, 3 and 4
D1, 2 and 4
EXPLANATION

REEs are vital for modern technologies including AI hardware, robotics, EVs, clean energy and space applications. India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission in 2025 to strengthen self-reliance.

Why others are wrong: India is not the second-largest REE miner after China. REEs are 17 elements, not 13.

Q61
Which of the following statements about insurance in aviation sector is/are correct? 1. 'Aviation Hull Insurance' covers the physical aircraft, including the body, engine, and on-board equipment. 2. Under the Montreal Convention, adopted in 1999 by over 130 countries, including India, airlines are strictly liable to pay compensation to the family/nominee of every deceased passenger without requiring the family to prove fault.
A1 only
B2 only
CBoth 1 and 2
DNeither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION

Aviation Hull Insurance covers physical damage to the aircraft, including fuselage, engines and on-board equipment. The Montreal Convention, 1999 provides a strict liability framework for passenger death or injury in international air carriage.

Why others are wrong: Both statements are correct.

Q62
Which of the following statements about Crowdfunding is/are correct? 1. Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amount) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project. 2. Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) are able to raise funds at lower cost of capital without undergoing rigorous procedures.
A1 only
B2 only
CBoth 1 and 2
DNeither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION

Crowdfunding allows small amounts to be raised from many people through online platforms. It can help SMEs and startups raise capital without traditional, lengthy bank or institutional procedures.

Why others are wrong: Both statements correctly define crowdfunding and its advantage.

Q63
With reference to different Committees in India, consider the following details: 1. R.N. Malhotra Committee — Comprehensive reforms of Insurance sector in India — Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India; 2. L.C. Gupta Committee — Preparing a roadmap for the introduction of derivatives trading in India — Securities and Exchange Board of India; 3. Urjit R. Patel Committee — Preparing a roadmap for reforming bank lending to the Housing sector — Reserve Bank of India; 4. Y.H. Malegam Committee — Preparing a roadmap for reforms in Microfinance sector in India — Reserve Bank of India. In which of the above rows are all the details correctly matched?
A2 only
B2 and 3
C1, 3 and 4
D2 and 4
EXPLANATION

As per the given answer key framing, R.N. Malhotra Committee relates to insurance reforms, Urjit R. Patel Committee is treated here with RBI reform framing, and Y.H. Malegam Committee relates to microfinance reforms.

Why others are wrong: The accepted option in this code set is 1, 3 and 4. This question has scope for debate in external references, but the given answer key marks option C.

Q64
Consider the following statements about the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India: 1. NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits. 2. All the NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with the RBI. 3. NBFCs form part of the payment and settlement system and can issue cheque drawn on itself. 4. Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is not available to the depositors of deposit taking NBFCs.
A1 and 4
B1, 2 and 3
C4 only
D2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION

NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits and DICGC deposit insurance is not available to NBFC depositors.

Why others are wrong: Not every NBFC-like entity is registered with RBI, as some are regulated by other authorities. NBFCs are not part of the payment and settlement system like banks and cannot issue cheques drawn on themselves.

Q65
Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI): 1. MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology. 2. MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators. 3. Maternal Health and Bank Account are common indicators in the MPI of NITI Aayog and MPI of United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
A1 and 2 only
B1, 2 and 3
C1 and 3 only
D2 only
EXPLANATION

MPI uses the Alkire-Foster methodology. NITI Aayog’s National MPI has 12 indicators across health, education and living standards.

Why others are wrong: Bank Account and Maternal Health are not common indicators in the same way in UNDP’s Global MPI; they are part of India’s national MPI framework.

Q66
Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct? 1. Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease. 2. Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine. 3. Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence.
A1 only
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 2 only
D1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION

Genetic medicines aim to correct, replace or compensate for faulty genes. Delivery systems include engineered viral vectors and lipid nanoparticles.

Why others are wrong: Genetic medicines target specific genes or genetic pathways; they do not alter the entire DNA sequence.

Q67
Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct? 1. LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability. 2. LLMs process data through mathematical optimization to minimise prediction errors. 3. LLMs produce unbiased outputs.
A1 only
B1 and 2 only
C2 and 3 only
D1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION

LLMs work through next-token prediction and are trained using mathematical optimization to reduce prediction error.

Why others are wrong: LLMs can reproduce or amplify biases present in training data and are not inherently unbiased.

Q68
Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct? 1. Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material. 2. Stealth objects can be detected using specific frequencies. 3. Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials to increase the scattering of electromagnetic radiation.
A1 only
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 2 only
D1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION

Stealth technology reduces radar cross-section through shaping and Radar Absorbing Materials. Stealth aircraft are not completely invisible and can be detected under certain radar frequencies.

Why others are wrong: Stealth materials aim to absorb, deflect or reduce scattering of electromagnetic waves, not increase scattering.

Q69
Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct? 1. They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses to facilitate underwater detection. 2. They record both the cockpit voice and flight data. 3. Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium.
A1 only
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 2 only
D1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION

Black boxes include Cockpit Voice Recorder and Flight Data Recorder. Their crash-survivable memory units are protected by strong materials such as stainless steel or titanium.

Why others are wrong: Underwater locator beacons emit ultrasonic acoustic pings, not red light pulses.

Q70
Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct? 1. It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS). 2. It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy. 3. National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.
A1 only
B2 and 3 only
C2 only
D1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION

Green hydrogen is produced by electrolysis of water using renewable energy. India’s National Green Hydrogen Mission targets significant emission reduction, including nearly 50 MMT annual GHG abatement by 2030.

Why others are wrong: Hydrogen produced from natural gas reforming with CCS is blue hydrogen, not green hydrogen.

Q71
Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India's space programme: 1. The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities. 2. Agnikul Cosmos launched the world's first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine. 3. Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV.
A1 only
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 2 only
D1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION

As per the given answer-key version, all three statements are treated as correct. IN-SPACe facilitates private participation, Agnikul Cosmos is associated with 3D-printed rocket engine technology, and Skyroot is associated with private space propulsion development.

Why others are wrong: This code follows the supplied answer key marking option D.

Q72
Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct? 1. They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre. 2. Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm. 3. GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack.
A1 only
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 2 only
D1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION

Drone swarms rely on inter-drone communication and coordination. GPS spoofing can be used as a counter-drone technique to mislead navigation.

Why others are wrong: Terahertz communication is not the regular operational communication method for drone swarms.

Q73
Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct? 1. It is a part of the Human Genome Project. 2. The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India. 3. Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population.
A1 only
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 2 only
D1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION

GenomeIndia is funded by DBT and aims to catalogue India’s genetic diversity through genome sequencing.

Why others are wrong: It is not a part of the international Human Genome Project, which was completed earlier.

Q74
Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct? 1. It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits. 2. Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India.
A1 only
B2 only
CBoth 1 and 2
DNeither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION

The National Quantum Mission implementation includes four Thematic Hubs across important quantum domains.

Why others are wrong: Statement 1 is treated as incorrect in the supplied key due to technical phrasing around qubit targets.

Q75
Which of the following statements with regard to India's Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct? 1. It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India. 2. Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration. 3. Samudrayaan is a project under this mission.
A1 only
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 2 only
D1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION

Matsya-6000 is designed to carry three persons for deep-sea exploration. Samudrayaan is a key project under India’s Deep Ocean Mission.

Why others are wrong: Deep Ocean Mission is under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, not the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.

Q76
Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare. Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X's actions?
AEsprit de corps
BEquity
CAccountability
DDelegation
EXPLANATION

Mr. X demonstrated accountability by reporting wrongdoing, acting through proper vigilance channels and prioritising public welfare over private profit.

Why others are wrong: Esprit de corps means team spirit, equity means fairness, and delegation means assigning authority. None is the central principle here.

Q77
In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses. As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health. Consider the following statements with reference to the above: 1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives. 2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group. 3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform — including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives — to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions. 4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making. Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?
A1, 3 and 4 only
B2, 3 and 4 only
C1 and 2 only
D1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION

Conflict resolution must begin by recognising tribal cultural concerns. A multi-stakeholder dialogue platform and an independent ESIA can help build trust and evidence-based consensus.

Why others are wrong: Moving ahead without delay by dismissing tribal concerns violates procedural justice and can worsen tensions.

Q78
Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project — a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city's reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust. What amongst the following should Ms. X do now? 1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public. 2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project's integrity. 3. Propose a 'limited disclosure' to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being.
A1 and 2 only
B3 only
C2 and 3 only
D1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION

Limited disclosure to an oversight committee balances transparency, confidentiality and due process. It allows scrutiny without publicly damaging a party based on unproven allegations.

Why others are wrong: Immediate public disclosure may be defamatory. Removing the contractor without due process violates natural justice and procurement fairness.

Q79
'X' was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term 'law' as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. 'X' explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. 'Y' pointed out that the term 'law' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having the force of law, to which 'X' was not convinced. Based on the above, select the correct conclusion:
A'X' is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.
BThe view of 'Y' that 'law' included custom is not correct.
CThe views of both 'X' and 'Y' are correct.
DThe view of only 'Y' is correct.
EXPLANATION

Article 13 includes custom or usage having force of law within the meaning of law. Therefore, Y is correct.

Why others are wrong: X’s view is incomplete because he excludes custom or usage having force of law.

Q80
Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India: 1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'. 2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed. 3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
AAll three statements are correct.
BThere is no correct statement.
CThere are two correct statements that include statement 3.
DThere is only one correct statement.
EXPLANATION

Article 393 says the Constitution may be called the Constitution of India. Article 395 repeals the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935.

Why others are wrong: Statements 1 and 2 are clearly wrong. Therefore, the conclusion that only one statement is correct is accepted in this answer key.

Q81
Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct? 1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination. 2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology. 3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).
A1 and 2
B2 only
C1 and 3
D1 only
EXPLANATION

Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan aims at universal accessibility in built environment, transport systems and ICT.

Why others are wrong: The RPwD Act was passed in 2016, not 2018. NDFDC is under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, not Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

Q82
Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India: 1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes. 3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
AThere are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
BThere are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.
CThere is only one correct statement.
DAll three statements are correct.
EXPLANATION

Some Scheduled Tribe members in specified areas are exempt from income tax on certain incomes. The Constitution also provides reservation for SC/ST women in Panchayats.

Why others are wrong: Tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are governed under the Sixth Schedule, not the Fifth Schedule.

Q83
Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India: 1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House. 2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer. 3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
AAll the three statements are correct.
BThere are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
CThere is only one correct statement.
DThere is no correct statement.
EXPLANATION

Starred questions require oral answers and allow supplementary questions. Unstarred questions require written answers and do not allow supplementary questions.

Why others are wrong: Statements 1 and 2 are reversed. Only statement 3 is correct.

Q84
Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India: 1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha. 3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee. 4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
AThere are four correct statements.
BThere is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.
CThere are two correct statements, that include statement 1.
DThere is no correct statement.
EXPLANATION

The Committee has 30 members: 20 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha. The Chairperson is appointed by the Speaker of Lok Sabha. No minister can be a member, and the term is one year.

Why others are wrong: All four statements contain factual errors.

Q85
Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India: 1. It aims to enhance India's air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities. 2. This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India's strategic autonomy. 3. One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035.
A1, 2 and 3
B1 and 2 only
C2 and 3 only
D1 only
EXPLANATION

Mission Sudarshan Chakra is framed around strengthening India’s air defence, missile defence and rapid response capabilities, supporting strategic autonomy.

Why others are wrong: It is not meant to cover all public places of India; the focus is strategic and critical defence assets.

Q86
Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries: 1. 'Maitri Setu', built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh. 2. Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar. 3. Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal.
A1 and 2
B2 and 3
C1 only
D3 only
EXPLANATION

Mechi Bridge connects Panitanki in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal.

Why others are wrong: Maitri Setu connects Sabroom in India with Ramgarh in Bangladesh, so statement 1 reverses the locations. Jhulaghat connects India and Nepal, not Myanmar.

Q87
Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct? 1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station. 2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry. 3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.
A1, 2 and 3
B2 and 3 only
C1 only
D2 only
EXPLANATION

A Zero FIR can be registered at any police station irrespective of jurisdiction and later transferred to the appropriate police station.

Why others are wrong: Preliminary enquiry is a separate concept and electronic submission is not obligatory for Zero FIR.

Q88
With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details: SI. 1 — Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) : To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies : Ministry of Home Affairs. SI. 2 — Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) : To investigate complex corporate frauds : Ministry of Finance. SI. 3 — Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) : To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy : Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension. In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched?
A1
B2
C3
DNone
EXPLANATION

Only the CBI row is correctly matched with the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.

Why others are wrong: CEIB is under the Ministry of Finance, not Home Affairs. SFIO is under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, not Ministry of Finance.

Q89
Which of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India? 1. Employment Policy Convention; 2. Abolition of Forced Labour Convention; 3. International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families; 4. Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War; 5. Convention on Reduction of Statelessness
A2 and 4
B1 and 2
C3 and 4 only
D3, 4 and 5
EXPLANATION

As per the supplied answer-key version, India has not ratified conventions numbered 3, 4 and 5.

Why others are wrong: The code follows the given answer key. This question may require verification against official convention-status records before final publication.

Q90
Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi: 1. The Summit's intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras: People, Planning and Progress. 2. The Preamble of the Summit stresses Democratising AI Resources, which acknowledges the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI as a binding framework to support locally relevant innovation and strengthen resilient AI ecosystems while respecting national laws. 3. The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars), which included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI.
A1, 2 and 3
B1 and 2 only
C2 and 3 only
D3 only
EXPLANATION

The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact is structured around seven Chakras or pillars, including Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI.

Why others are wrong: The Sutras are People, Planet and Progress, not People, Planning and Progress. The Charter is not a binding framework as stated.

Q91
Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries? 1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project; 2. IMT Trilateral Highway; 3. Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line
A1 and 2
B2 and 3
C1 and 3
D2 only
EXPLANATION

Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project involves India and Myanmar, an ASEAN member. The IMT Trilateral Highway connects India, Myanmar and Thailand, both Myanmar and Thailand being ASEAN members.

Why others are wrong: Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line connects India with Bangladesh, and Bangladesh is not an ASEAN member.

Q92
Match List I (Project Supported by India) with List II (Country): A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project — 1. Maldives; B. Restoration of Stor Palace — 2. Afghanistan; C. District Hospital at Dickoya — 3. Bhutan; D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies — 4. Sri Lanka
AA-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
BA-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
CA-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
DA-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
EXPLANATION

Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project is in Bhutan. Restoration of Stor Palace is in Afghanistan. District Hospital at Dickoya is in Sri Lanka. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies is in Maldives.

Why others are wrong: Other options mismatch the project-country pairs.

Q93
Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India? 1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets; 2. T-90 MK-III Tanks; 3. Akula Class Submarine
A1 and 2
B1 and 3
C1 only
D2 only
EXPLANATION

Su-30 MKI fighter jets are manufactured under licence by HAL in India. T-90 tanks are also manufactured/assembled in India under licence.

Why others are wrong: Akula-class submarines are Russian-built and leased by India, not manufactured in India.

Q94
Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation: 1. The 'Colombo Process' is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus. 2. The 'Abu Dhabi Dialogue' is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility. 3. The 'Global Forum for Migration and Development', created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary forum whose decisions are non-binding in nature.
A1, 2 and 3
B1 and 3 only
C2 and 3 only
D2 only
EXPLANATION

Abu Dhabi Dialogue is a voluntary non-binding consultative process on labour mobility. Global Forum on Migration and Development is also voluntary and non-binding.

Why others are wrong: Colombo Process is also non-binding, not binding as stated in statement 1.

Q95
Consider the following UN organisations/agencies: 1. World Food Programme; 2. United Nations Children's Fund; 3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees; 4. International Labour Organisation. How many of the above has/have been awarded the Nobel Prize twice?
A1
B2
C3
D4
EXPLANATION

As per the supplied answer-key version, two organisations/agencies from the list are treated as having been awarded the Nobel Prize twice.

Why others are wrong: The given answer key marks option B. This is a sensitive factual question and should be verified with official Nobel records before final publication.

Q96
Match List I (UN Peacekeeping Operation) with List II (Period of Operation): A. UNMIL — 1. 2007-2010; B. MINURCAT — 2. 2002-2005; C. MINUSTAH — 3. 2003-2018; D. UNMISET — 4. 2004-2017
AA-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
BA-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
CA-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
DA-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
EXPLANATION

UNMIL operated from 2003 to 2018. MINURCAT operated from 2007 to 2010. MINUSTAH operated from 2004 to 2017. UNMISET operated from 2002 to 2005.

Why others are wrong: Other options mismatch the peacekeeping missions and their operational periods.

Q97
Match List I (BIMSTEC Centre/Establishment) with List II (Location): A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory — 1. NOIDA; B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre — 2. Bengaluru; C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate — 3. Colombo; D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility — 4. Thimphu
AA-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
BA-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
CA-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
DA-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
EXPLANATION

BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory is in Colombo. BIMSTEC Energy Centre is in Bengaluru. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate is in NOIDA. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility is in Thimphu.

Why others are wrong: Other options incorrectly exchange the centre-location pairs.

Q98
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (Indian Army Corps : Headquarters): (a) 3 Corps : Dimapur; (b) 4 Corps : Tezpur; (c) 14 Corps : Leh; (d) 33 Corps : Srinagar
A(a) 3 Corps : Dimapur
B(b) 4 Corps : Tezpur
C(c) 14 Corps : Leh
D(d) 33 Corps : Srinagar
EXPLANATION

3 Corps is headquartered at Dimapur, 4 Corps at Tezpur, and 14 Corps at Leh.

Why others are wrong: 33 Corps is headquartered at Sukna near Siliguri, not Srinagar. Srinagar is associated with 15 Corps.

Q99
Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct? 1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026. 2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals. 3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.
A1 and 2
B2 only
C1 and 3
D2 and 3
EXPLANATION

As per the supplied answer-key version, statements 2 and 3 are treated as correct. The key objective is to develop governance capabilities of Panchayati Raj Institutions for achieving Sustainable Development Goals.

Why others are wrong: The implementation period in statement 1 is treated as inaccurate in this answer-key version. Funding pattern should be checked carefully before final publication, as official scheme documents may include different Centre-State sharing patterns.

Q100
Which of the following countries are members of the European Union? 1. Belarus; 2. Poland; 3. Germany; 4. Switzerland
A1, 2 and 4
B1 and 4 only
C2 and 3
D2 and 4 only
EXPLANATION

Poland and Germany are members of the European Union.

Why others are wrong: Belarus is not an EU member. Switzerland is not an EU member; it is associated with Europe through separate bilateral and EFTA arrangements.

Quick Answer Key Table — All 100 Questions

Q.NoAnswer Q.NoAnswer Q.NoAnswer Q.NoAnswer Q.NoAnswer
1(b)11(d)21(a)31(b)41(c)
2(c)12(a)22(b)32(b)42(d)
3(c)13(c)23(b)33(d)43(c)
4(b)14(c)24(b)34(d)44(a)
5(b)15(b)25(b)35(c)45(c)
6(b)16(a)26(b)36(d)46(c)
7(a)17(b)27(c)37(a)47(c)
8(d)18(a)28(b)38(d)48(c)
9(d)19(c)29(b)39(c)49(a)
10(c)20(b)30(c)40(b)50(a)
51(c)61(c)71(b)81(b)91(a)
52(a)62(c)72(b)82(a)92(b)
53(c)63(c)73(b)83(c)93(a)
54(c)64(a)74(b)84(d)94(c)
55(d)65(a)75(b)85(b)95(b)
56(a)66(c)76(c)86(d)96(b)
57(c)67(b)77(a)87(c)97(a)
58(b)68(c)78(b)88(a)98(d)
59(b)69(b)79(d)89(d)99(d)
60(a)70(b)80(d)90(d)100(c)

Note: On mobile, swipe left or right to view the complete answer key table.

Difficulty Level Analysis

EASY — Around 30%

Direct factual recall: Q9, Q10, Q11, Q21, Q29, Q46, Q50, Q52, Q53, Q57, Q59, Q98.

MODERATE — Around 45%

Conceptual + 2-step elimination: most History, Polity and Environment questions.

TOUGH — Around 25%

Niche current affairs / multiple-correct format: Q3, Q9, Q17, Q22, Q26, Q44, Q53, Q60, Q63, Q92, Q97.

Key Trends and Observations

Ancient History Dominance

9 questions appeared on IVC, Vedic, Buddhist, Jain, Sangam, Numismatics and Place-value system.

Heavy Current-Affairs Integration

Around 45+ questions had direct 2024-2026 current affairs links such as national parks, geoparks, awards, schemes and international events.

Economy/Finance Upweighted

19 questions covered blockchain, ONDC, FI-Index, Digital Rupee, RWA Tokenization, REEs, NBFCs and MPI.

Science & Tech Heavy

Questions appeared from DHRUV64, Nobel Physics, BFS, LLMs, stealth, black boxes, drone swarms, Green Hydrogen, GenomeIndia, NQM and Deep Ocean Mission.

Ethics Case Studies in Prelims

Q76, Q77 and Q78 show that Mains GS-IV style value-based reasoning is now being tested in Prelims format.

Polity Reduced but Deeper

Polity questions focused on BNSS-2023, Parliamentary questions, committee composition and application-based constitutional understanding.

Final Exam Tip — UPSC 2026 Prelims Lessons
  • ★ Master every 2024-2026 current-affairs scheme, event, personality and award.
  • ★ Do not ignore niche art-culture: gharanas, ragas, temple shikhara types and cave paintings.
  • ★ Ancient Indian history is back — IVC, Vedic, Sramana, Sangam, Numismatics and Place-value.
  • ★ Economy/Finance now nearly equals History in weight — focus on RBI, MSMEs, Tokenization, Digital Rupee and Critical Minerals.
  • ★ Science & Tech is the new high-weightage area — AI, Quantum, Semiconductor, Genomics, Space and Defence.
  • ★ Read BIMSTEC, ASEAN and UN agency details carefully.
  • ★ Case-study Ethics questions now appear in Prelims — practice value-based reasoning.
  • ★ Polity is moving towards application — BNSS/BNS replacing IPC/CrPC must be mastered.

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